This is an elementary question, but I wasn't able to find the answer. I have two measurements: n1 events in time t1 and n2 events in time t2, both produced (say) by Poisson processes with possibly-different lambda values.
This is actually from a news article, which essentially claims that since $n_1/t_1\neq n_2/t_2$ that the two are different, but I'm not sure that the claim is valid. Suppose that the time periods were not chosen maliciously (to maximize the events in one or the other).
Can I just do a t-test, or would that not be appropriate? The number of events is too small for me to comfortably call the distributions approximately normal.