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I am using logistic regression to analyze some categorical data (binary response variable and categorical -- mostly binary -- predictor variables). For my model, I have something like A ~ B and a hypothesis that the respondent's B has some explanatory power over the choice of A. When I run this regression, only the intercept shows a p-value within the range of statistical significance.

However, I have some other variable C that assesses some pre-existing conditions for each respondent. When I run a logit regression on A ~ B + C, C has a very low p-value (statistically significant). That is to say, the pre-existing preferences that each respondent has, as reflected by C appear to have an effect on their choice in A.

My question then, is whether or not it is appropriate to add an interaction term for B*C to my regression in this case. When I run the logit regression A ~ B * C (or the equivalent to A ~ B + C + B:C), both B and C and the interaction term B:C have high statistical significance (low p-values). Is this statistically valid? Does it make sense for something to become statistically significant when an interaction term is added to the model?

Pygmalion
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  • This question is too close to your preceding one to remain opened. I would suggest to keep asking clarifications beneath Maarten's reply on the other thread, unless you really have a very different question. – chl Apr 24 '13 at 10:11
  • I understand, thanks. This is a slightly different question in my eyes in that it's asking about the validity of the application of a statistical approach as opposed to the interpretation of a specific model, but you are right that they both come from the same problem that I am having. Maarten happened to answer both questions, so I will clarify with him and anyone else in the comments to the other question.(http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/57031/interpreting-interaction-terms-in-logit-regression-with-categorical-variables/) – Pygmalion Apr 24 '13 at 20:51

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This kind of pattern can happen when the effect of B on A is positive in one group of C and negative in the other. If you do not include the interaction term between B and C then these two effect cancel out and you'll find an effect close to 0 (or equivalently an odds ratio close to 1). So yes, B could be non-siginificant in a model without the interaction term and become significant when an interaction term is added.

Maarten Buis
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