I'm trying to fit a bivariate unknown change point mixed model data comparable to the one described by Wang & McArdle, 2008 (DOI: 10.1080/10705510701758265).
I want to model a linear trend before the change point and a linear trend after the change point. The following is how I defined the respective likelihood. Is that right?
# likelihood for y1 and y2
for(i in 1:nsubj){
for(j in 1:ntime){
y1[i, j] ~ dnorm(muy1[i, j], tauy1)
muy1[i, j] <- b[i, 1] + b[i, 2] * x[i, j] + b[i, 3] * (max(0, x[i, j] - b[i, 4]))
y2[i, j] ~ dnorm(muy2[i, j], tauy2)
muy2[i, j] <- b[i, 5] + b[i, 6] * x[i, j] + b[i, 7] * (max(0, x[i, j] - b[i, 8]))
} }
How do I have to alter the likelihood if I assume no growth before the change point (and the intercept to be at .50) and linear growth after the change point?
Thanks in advance!