From what I understand, the exponential family is defined as
$$f(y;\theta,\phi) = \exp\left(\frac{y\theta - b(\theta)}{a(\phi)}+c(y,\phi)\right) $$
I've read (but not seen shown anywhere), that the t distribution is not a member of the exponential family. But I don't understand why.
For instance, suppose I set $\theta = 0$, $b(\theta)=0$, and set $$c(y,\phi) = \ln\left(\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{\phi+1}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{\phi\pi}\Gamma(\frac{\phi}{2})} \left(1+\frac{x^2}{\phi} \right)^{-\frac{\phi+1}{2}}\right)$$,
wouldn't then the t distribution then appear because
you would have
$$\exp\left(0+\ln\left(\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{\phi+1}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{\phi\pi}\Gamma(\frac{\phi}{2})} \left(1+\frac{x^2}{\phi} \right)^{-\frac{\phi+1}{2}}\right)\right)=\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{\phi+1}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{\phi\pi}\Gamma(\frac{\phi}{2})} \left(1+\frac{x^2}{\phi} \right)^{-\frac{\phi+1}{2}}$$
which is the t-distribution.
Why doesn't this work?
EDIT:
Ideally, I'd like to know why also my logic above is wrong (which I'm certain it is). So if you can fit that into your answer, that would be great.