Pridemore and Freilich analyzed homicide victimization rates by state for white non-hispanics. Here is the summarization of the regression model.
variable Intercept RD PS YOUNG DIV UN SOUTH
beta -5.230 0.109 1.758 18.293 5.710 5.710 0.257
stand.coef. 0.302 0.216 0.293 0.524 0.118 0.260
p.value 0.001 0.021 0.014 <0.001 <0.001 0.129 0.010
Where, RD is a measure of deprivation, PS is a measure of population structure, DIV is a divorce rate, UN is unemployment rate, SOUTH is a dummy variable that is 1 for a collection of 16 southern states.
The author tells from the summarization, "White non-hispanic rates remained significantly higher in the south when controlling for the covariates."
Now, the question is,
- How the authors reached this conclusion from this regression.
- Do I need to check any assumptions before accepting this conclusion as valid? If so, then what are those assumptions?
I appreciate if I would get a full explanation from this question.