Why is it true that $P(A|B,C) \neq P(A|B) P(A|C)$ when $B$ and $C$ are independent?
Intuitively I can understand that the LHS probability should be greater than the RHS and the above equation doesn't hold that. But is there any proof to convince me.
Another question: say if $A$ and $C$ are independent then can I tell $P(A|BC) = P(A|B)$?