1

Similarly as in this question, I'm working with meta-analysis of studies reporting ORs of an event.

I have one study where I'm not sure if it should be excluded.

The frequencies of the outcome are: No outcome: 85% Outcome 1: 6% Outcome 2: 9%

Authors use 'multivariate multinomial logistic' regression using this outcome and report adjusted effects as RRR. This estimates refer to continuous variable coded 1 to 4 and range from 1.14 to 2.97 in different models and would be the estimated pooled to meta-analysis.

I know that in case of rare events (sometimes quoted as <10% incidence), RRs approximate ORs.. My question is – would that hold for multinomial model? And is 9% + 6% still rare? Effectively - can these RRRs be use as approximation of ORs?

Community
  • 1
radek
  • 1,207
  • 2
  • 15
  • 37
  • Is there some reason, why one cannot calculate the odds ratio from the reports of the study (e.g. outcome vs. no outcome)? – Björn Dec 10 '15 at 13:06

1 Answers1

0

Pointers from Roberto Gutierrez on this answer on Statalistand the fact that the authors used multinomial model slowly make me believe that this study will be excluded.

radek
  • 1,207
  • 2
  • 15
  • 37