I was wondering if any of the members of this community would like to share his/her intuition about completeness in statistics. For the sake of "completeness", here's the definition, taken from Wikipedia:
Consider a random variable $X$ whose probability distribution belongs to a parametric family of probability distributions $P_\theta$ parametrized by $\theta$.
The statistic $T$ is said to be complete for the distribution of $X$ if for every measurable function $g$ (which must be independent of $\theta$) the following implication holds: $$E(g(T(X))) = 0 \mbox{ for all }\theta \mbox{ implies that }P_\theta(g(T(X)) = 0) = 1\mbox{ for all }\theta.$$
Now, to give you an idea of what kind of answer I am looking for, here's how I think about (minimal) sufficiency: I think of a statistic as a partition of the sample space. In that context, a statistic is sufficient for $\theta$ if this partition does not result in a loss of "information" about $\theta$; it is minimal sufficient if it is the coarsest partition which does not result in a loss of information (superlatives carry a uniqueness connotation, which I am ignoring here).
Note: I am aware that a very similar question has been asked before, but I'm looking for a different answer.