The covariance matrix in this example is given by $$\mathbf C = \left(\begin{array}{c} 1 & \sim 1 & 0 \\ \sim 1 & \sim 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 100\end{array}\right).$$
To compare PCA and FA, think about how PCA/FA loadings reconstruct the covariance matrix.
The loadings of the first principal component in PCA is a vector $\mathbf v$ that minimizes the reconstruction error $\|\mathbf C - \mathbf v \mathbf v^\top \|$. As is well-known, it is given by the leading eigenvector of $\mathbf C$ scaled by a square root of its eigenvalue, and in this case will be pointing in the $(0,0,1)$ direction (in order to reproduce the covariance of $X_3$ which would otherwise be a major source of reconstruction error).
In contrast, the loadings of the first factor in FA is a vector $\mathbf v$ that minimizes the reconstruction error $\|\mathbf C - \mathbf v \mathbf v^\top - \boldsymbol \Psi \|$, where $\boldsymbol \Psi$ is a diagonal matrix of uniquenesses. This is equivalent to saying that it minimizes the reconstruction error $\|\mathrm{offdiag}\{\mathbf C - \mathbf v \mathbf v^\top\}\|$, i.e. FA does not care about reconstructing the diagonal. Think about $\mathbf C$ with erased diagonal:$$\mathrm{offdiag}\{\mathbf C\}=\left(\begin{array}{c} & \sim 1 & 0 \\ \sim 1 & & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \end{array}\right).$$ The goal of FA is to reconstruct this part of $\mathbf C$ and so the loadings of the first factor will be pointing in the $(1,1,0)$ direction, in order to reproduce this off-diagonal covariance between $X_1$ and $X_2$.
Note that this analysis is based on the covariance matrix. Conducting an analysis based on the correlation matrix would (in this case) lead both PCA and FA to yield similar outcomes.
My answer to the opposite question might be of interest:
For many more details about PCA vs FA issue, see my [very long] answer to this question: