Previously I've read that adjusted-$R^2$ is not a measure of fit. Recently, though, I wanted to substantiate that piece of knowledge by understanding the reason why but I couldn't find any substantive sources to back this up.
The Wikipedia article on it states "while $R^2$ is a measure of fit, adjusted $R^2$ is instead a comparative measure of suitability of alternative nested sets of explanators" but does not provide a citation.