For fun and amusement, you wonder how well student grades in Course 101 can predict scores in Course 102. So, you do a regression on grades from both classes.
If you got an r = .59 with $r^2$ = 35%, would you consider this strong or weak? Can you say anything more than concluding, "There’s obviously an association, but there are other variables in play, as well."
Bottom line, just how noteworthy is an r=.59 considered? If 32% of the 102 grade is “explained by” the 101 grade, that seems like a non-trivial factor.
TL;DR: How does a professional statistician formally interpret r=.59 with $r^2$ =35% ?