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I have a lot of 1,000 parts. We ran a test on a sample size of 50. We had 12 failures.

A colleague did the following calculation in excel:

Using a 80% confidence level....

=BETAINV(1-.8,38,12+1)

The result was 0.6653 and therefore, the conclusion was the we could be 80% confident that at least 66.5% of the lot were good parts.

Is that the correct way to approach this issue? Is the formula correct? And is that a proper conclusion from that formula?

Drake
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  • Please see [our posts about binomial confidence intervals](https://stats.stackexchange.com/search?q=binomial+confidence+score%3A5+is%3Aanswer). https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/4756 is pretty comprehensive. The inverse beta distribution is used to compute percentiles of Binomial and F-ratio distribution, both of which are involved in formulas given in that thread. – whuber Feb 01 '22 at 15:56

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