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Is the following assumption in MLR (multiple linear regression) true or false ??

$\epsilon_i$ is independent of $Y_i$ for i=1,…,n. Where,

$\epsilon_i$ is the random error in the model $Y_i$ is the outcome (dependent variable)

let me know your thoughts? Also what about the opposite assumption which is:

$Y_i$ is independent of $\epsilon_i$ for i=1,…,n. ?? is it true or false

pat-s
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loreen
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  • [This site search](https://stats.stackexchange.com/search?q=regression+assumptions+independ*) will more than fully answer all your questions. – whuber Jan 20 '22 at 15:40
  • Thank you for sharing the link. May I ask what do you think about the above-mentioned assumption? – loreen Jan 20 '22 at 15:43
  • My answer is posted at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/148713/919. – whuber Jan 20 '22 at 15:45
  • So, as I understand this assumption " is independent of " is false, because they are both related and = - hat, am I correct? and if they are both related, so both assumptions listed above are wrong. Please correct me if I am wrong – loreen Jan 20 '22 at 15:50

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