to interpret the White-Test, it is recommended to use the LM-statistic = N*R-squared of the auxiliary regression which follows a Chi-squared distribution with df = number of restrictions.
But I wondered why. Wouldn't it be just fine to use the F-Test? The null hypothesis of the F-Test would be that all parameters of the auxiliary regression are 0 (excluding the constant). Of course, we have interactions terms and explanatory variables^2 , but the restrictions of the null hypothesis are still linear: ß_1 = ß_2 = ... = 0. So I don't see a problem using the F-statistic. And the advantage of the F-statistic would be that we don't rely on the asymptotic properties of LM-tests.
Why isn't this done normally? Why is only the LM-statistic used for the White test?