Given an ARMA(1,1) process
$$X_t = \phi X_{t-1} + \varepsilon_t + \theta \varepsilon_{t-1},\quad \varepsilon_t \sim WN(0,\sigma^2)$$
Let $N \sim Po(\lambda)$ a poisson random variable. Consider the compound sums: $$Y_t = \sum_{j=1}^N X_{t;j}$$ where $\{(X_t)_{t \in \mathbb{Z}}\}_{j\in \mathbb{N}}$ are copies (i.i.d. along $j$) of $(X_t)_{t \in \mathbb{Z}}$. Note that $N$ is the same for all $t$.
I am trying to show that the process $(Y_t)_{t \in \mathbb{Z}}$ is also an ARMA(1,1) process. My intuition say to me that it is true.
Note that for any $j$:
$$X_{t,j} = \phi X_{t-1;j} + \varepsilon_{t,j} + \theta \varepsilon_{t-1;j}$$
Taking the sum, we have:
$$\sum_{j=1}^N X_{t,j}= \phi \sum_{j=1}^N X_{t-1;j}+ \underbrace{\sum_{j=1}^N \varepsilon_{t,j}}_{:=\, \epsilon_t} + \theta \,\,\, \underbrace{\sum_{j=1}^N \varepsilon_{t-1;j}}_{ := \, \epsilon_{t-1} }$$
that is:
$$Y_t = \phi Y_{t-1} + \epsilon_t + \theta \epsilon_{t-1}$$
I think that the sum of independent white noise is a white noise and according to this, we have that $E(\epsilon_t) = \lambda E(\varepsilon_t)$ and $Var(\epsilon_t) = \lambda Var (\varepsilon_t)$. Thus, I can say that $\varepsilon_t \sim WN(0,\lambda \sigma^2)$
I don't know if my argument is right. I would like to receive a feedback from you, in case I'm missing a more rigorous argument.