The residual approach uses standardized residuals SR from regression of Y on X1 as an outcome, and then regress them on X2 (here is a literature review: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8448552/ ; here: (pdf), in Subsection: "How Can We Identify Children Who Are Resilient to the Harmful Effects of SES Deprivation?", a short description is given). Here: https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/epub/10.1080/21642850.2019.1593845?needAccess=true the method is discussed at pages 5-7 (94-96 of the journal), in Subsections "Residuals" and the following "Strengths & limitations".
How can this approach be valid? Not only it assumes the 1st-step regression model is the correct one, but it also ignores its estimation error, by treating SR as an observed variable.
What is the practical difference with respect to performing a multiple regression of Y on X1 and X2? Wouldn't individuals with a positive(negative) coefficient on the second-step regression (SR on X2) be the same with a positive(negative) coefficient of X2 in multiple regression? And, if the issue is standardization, wouldn't it be the same to standardize the coefficient?