0

I'm wondering what R is doing in the background when given rate/proportion data and frequency weights. The Binomial GLM should only fit {0,1} data but the results still seem fairly accurate.

Does it implicitly call a Quasibinomial if given continuous data + frequency weights? I'm confused as to why this works.

enter image description here

  • 2
    It is better if you copy your code instead of using screenshot... It would be easier to read. Thanks. – Pitouille Nov 19 '21 at 15:33

0 Answers0