Problem:
If $\hat{θ}_1$ and $\hat{θ}_2$ are unbiased estimators of $θ$, and $\hat{θ}_1$ and $\hat{θ}_2$ are antithetic, we derived that $c^∗ = 1/2$ is the optimal constant that minimizes the variance of $\hat{θ}_c = c\hat{θ}_1 + (1 − c)\hat{θ}_2$. Derive $c^∗$ for the general case. That is, if $\hat{θ}_1$ and $\hat{θ}_2$ are any two unbiased estimators of $θ$, find the value $c^∗$ that minimizes the variance of the estimator $\hat{θ}_c = c\hat{θ}_1 + (1 − c)\hat{θ}_2$ in equation $var(c\hat{θ}_1 + (1 − c)\hat{θ}_2)=Var(\hat{θ}_2) + c^2Var(\hat{θ}_1 − \hat{θ}_2) + 2c Cov(\hat{θ}_2,\hat{θ}_1 − \hat{θ}_2)$ (c∗ will be a function of the variances and the covariance of the estimators.)
My understanding:
In the special case of antithetic variates, $\hat{θ}_1$ and $\hat{θ}_2$ are iid and $cor(\hat{θ}_1,\hat{θ}_2) = −1$. Thus, $cov(\hat{θ}_1,\hat{θ}_2) =−var(\hat{θ}_1)$, and so the variance of $\hat{θ}_c$ equals $(4c2 − 4c + 1) ∗ var(\hat{θ}_1)$. I am not sure how to relate this special case with the above general case. I appreciate your suggestions. Thanks!