I will take only the BoxCox's transformation for $\lambda \neq 0$ so it's:
$Y_i=\displaystyle\frac{(X_i^{\lambda}-1)}{\lambda}$
and its inverse:
$X_i=e^{ \displaystyle ln(Y_i \lambda+1)/\lambda}$
Assuming that transformation will normalize the random variable $X_i$ then $Y_i\sim N(u_y,\sigma^2_y)$ the distribution for $X_i$'s distribution can be get as:
$f_X(x_i)=\phi_y\displaystyle\left({\displaystyle\frac{{x_i^\lambda}-1}{\lambda}}\right) x_i^{\lambda-1}$ where $\phi_y$ is $y$'s distribution
But when I try to get its support, that is the set where $f_{X}(x_i)>0$ and it integrates 1, I come across with this trouble below:
$-\infty < y_i < \infty$, that is the support of $Y_i$
$-\infty< y_i \lambda<\infty$
$-\infty< y_i \lambda+1<\infty$
the trouble comes when I'd apply the $ln$ function (it's clean that I'm using limits but I preferred make the notation easier):
$ln(-\infty) < ln(y_i\lambda+1)< ln(\infty)$
Note that $ln(-\infty)$ is not real valuated.
Is there any way to get rid of this issue or should I ignore that and accept it's a impossible-to-solve trouble?