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Suppose we define a (possibly infinite) mixture of zero-mean Gaussians:

$$p(x) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^+} N(x; 0, \sigma^2)\ \pi(\sigma)\,\text d\sigma,$$

where $\pi$ defines the mixture components. Obviously, if $\pi$ is a point mass on some standard deviation $\sigma$, the resulting distribution is Gaussian with that variance.

Are there any other mixtures $\pi$ which will result in a Gaussian marginal?

Edit: it would actually still be helpful to characterize if/when this is possible even when the means are not required to be 0.

Xi'an
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Allen94
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  • Gaussian marginal could be possible in Bayesian setting but integral looks incomplete. Where is the integral taken over? dx or over sigma? More context might be helpful to make the question more precise. – msuzen Aug 29 '21 at 21:45
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    Welcome to CV. Closely related to [this question](https://stats.stackexchange.com/q/197445/10479). – Yves Aug 30 '21 at 06:49

1 Answers1

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Copying from the Wikipedia page on compound distributions

Gaussian scale mixtures:

  • Compounding a normal distribution with variance distributed according to an inverse gamma distribution (or equivalently, with precision distributed as a gamma distribution) yields a non-standardized Student's t-distribution. This distribution has the same symmetrical shape as a normal distribution with the same central point, but has greater variance and heavy tails.

  • Compounding a Gaussian distribution with variance distributed according to an exponential distribution (or with standard deviation according to a Rayleigh distribution) yields a Laplace distribution.

  • Compounding a Gaussian distribution with variance distributed according to an exponential distribution whose rate parameter is itself distributed according to a gamma distribution yields a Normal-exponential-gamma distribution. (This involves two compounding stages. The variance itself then follows a Lomax distribution; see below.)

  • Compounding a Gaussian distribution with standard deviation distributed according to a (standard) inverse uniform distribution yields a Slash distribution.

but I do not think there is a case outside the Dirac mass at $\sigma_0$ where the compound is also a Gaussian. This 2005 conference paper by Alecu et al. contains a proof of this result (among other things).

Xi'an
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    I believe a small change in the second half of my analysis at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/429877/919 will prove this. (Replace the sum with an integral.) A generalization of the full answer ought to resolve the broader question (involving variable means). – whuber Aug 31 '21 at 20:57