I'm quite struggling in the understanding of the concept of saturated model.
I give a brief context:
Suppose that we have $N$ observations of $(Y, X_1, X_2)$.
Suppose that each $Y_i$ is Poisson distributed with the parameter $\lambda_{i}$. Our wish is to estimate the $E(Y_i|X_{i1}, X_{i2})$ which is equivalent to estimate $\lambda_{i}$ as $i:1 \to N$Suppose we are fitting a GLM model (we call this fitted model) by assuming the relationship: $g(\mu_{i}) = \beta_1 X_1 + \beta_2 X_2$ $(1)$
We estimates $\beta_1, \beta_2$ by using maximum likelihood estimation, then we replace back $\beta_1, \beta_2$ into the function $(1)$ to have the estimation of $\mu$.Consider another type of model: the saturated model. It is defined to be the model that has as many parameters (which is $\mu$) as number of observations (which is $N$ in this example).
My understanding about the saturated model is as follows:
- There are $N$ parameters which are $\mu_1, \mu_2, ..., \mu_N$ to be estimated.
- The difference between saturated model and fitted model is that in the saturated model, we estimate the $\mu_1, \mu_2, .., \mu_N$ whereas in the fitted model, we estimate the $\beta_1, \beta_2$
I have 2 questions please:
I see that in the fitted model, there are also $N$ parameters $\mu_1, \mu_2, ..., \mu_N$ to be estimated (as we have $N$ observations $Y_1, Y_2, ..., Y_N$ where each $Y_i$ has its own $\mu_i$, and we estimate these $\mu_i$ by first estimating the coefficients $\beta_1, \beta_2$ and replace back into the link function).
So why we define the saturated model to be "the model that has as many parameter as number of observation" where it is also the case of usual fitted model ?Does the saturated model depends on the explanatory variables $X_1, X_2$ ? I think it does not, but in the answer of Taylor in this thread In a GLM, is the log likelihood of the saturated model always zero?, I see that the design matrix $\mathbb{X}$ becomes a matrix that have $1$ on its diagonal and $0$ elsewhere. As to me, it suggests that the saturated model depends on the explanatory variables $X_1, X_2$ but I don't know why the design matrix $\mathbb{X}$ is transformed into such a new form (i.e. a matrix of $1$ and $0$) when we deal with saturated model.
Thank you very much for your help!