I have read many times that the hinge loss is the tightest convex upper bound on the 0-1 loss (e.g. here, here and here). However, I have never seen a formal proof of this statement. How can we formally define the hinge loss, 0-1 loss and the concept of tightness between functions to prove this statement?
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did you find answer?! , I am looking for the same question:(. – miss Ran Jun 12 '21 at 12:23
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@missRan I did not. You could up vote the question so it gains more visibility :) – durdi Jun 13 '21 at 13:54