Assume we have a random variable $X$, and we construct another random variable $Y$ to be from a binomial distribution of size $X$ and success probability $\alpha$, i.e., $Y \sim Binom(X, \alpha)$. How can you derive the covariance of $X$ and $Y$?
In the literature I am looking into (see below), it has been stated that $Cov(X, \alpha \circ X) = \alpha \cdot Var(X)$. How can I prove that?
Background
I am studying discrete-variate time series models such as integer-valued autoregressive models (specifically, INAR(1)) (Al-Osh & Alzaid, 1987). At the core of the model lies the binomial thinning operator " $\circ$ " (first introduced by Steutel & van Harn, 1979) as defined below (rephrased from Weiß, 2018):
If $X$ is a r.v. with range $\mathbb{N}_0$ and if $\alpha \in (0;1)$, for counting series $Z_i$ (with $P(Z_i=1) = \alpha$), the r.v. $\alpha \circ X := \sum_{i=1}^{X} Z_i$ is said to arise from $X$ by binomial thinning.
It is easy to show that $(\alpha \circ X)|X \sim Binom(X, \alpha)$.
In the literature (e.g., Al-Osh & Alzaid, 1987; McKenzie, 1985; McKenzie, 2003), the autocorrelation function of INAR(1) is asserted to be $\rho(k) = \alpha^k$ (for $k \geq 0$).
As far as I could get, this is first derived by Al-Osh and Alzaid (1987) and cited afterward. In doing so (p. 265, Eq. 3.3), they substitute $Cov(X, \alpha^k \circ X)$ with $\alpha^k \cdot Var(X)$, but I am failing to derive it myself.