I am seeing some results that point to a clear conceptual gap in my understanding of multinomial logistic regression and am seeking an explanation.
I am performing multinomial logistic regression on a dataset in which the dependent variable has three levels. I first cross-tabulated the relationship between the dependent variable y (with levels y1, y2 and y3) and one categorical independent variable x (with levels x1 and x2). The cross-table of x and y showing row-wise percentages looks like this:
y
--------------------
| y1 y2 y3
|--------------------------
| x1 | 47.6 28.4. 23.9
x | x2 | 26.1 21.4. 52.5
From the above table, it is clear that the probability of y3 is much higher when x = x2 than when x = x1. Also, the odds of y3 relative to y1 are also much higher when x = x2 than when x = x1.
I then ran a multinomial logistic regression with several independent variables in addition to x, with y = y1 and x = x1 as the reference values. I got the following coefficients for x from the regression:
====================================================
Dependent variable:
----------------------------
y2 y3
----------------------------------------------------
x_x2 1.079*** -0.484***
----------------------------------------------------
From the coefficients, I can see that the log odds of y3 relative to y1 will decrease by 0.484 when x changes from x1 to x2. This seems like an anomaly given how the odds of y3 relative to y1 in the cross-table above are much higher for x = x2 than for x = x1. Of course, I understand that in the regression, I am using many other independent variables and that these could have an impact, but am unable to see how such an impact might come about.
I would appreciate if someone can throw more light on how the presence of other independent variables can cause something like this to happen.