During my searches I've come to a strange position;
The Probit definition in Wikipedia is simple;
$$\operatorname{probit}(p) = \sqrt{2}\,\operatorname{erf}^{-1}(2p-1)$$
Then, I've come to a source that explains using Finley's book
The probit $Y$ of the proportion $P$ is defined by; $$P(Y) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{Y-5} e^{-\frac{1}{2}u^2}du. $$
I've verified both using the Sagemath, but there is no relation that I can see between these two functions. Am I missing something? Are those the same (actually the inverse of each other)?
Note: I'm trying to understand the probits on the concept of the $\text{LD}_{50}$.