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I have estimated a conditional mean model for a time series:

$ x_t = x_{t-1} + \epsilon_t$.

Say I have estimated it using periods 1 to 10. I can do an out of sample conditional mean forecast by multiplying the estimated coefficients with the respective variable values of period 11, i.e. I can strictly out of sample forecast period 12.

However, how do I do this with an ARCH model that is based on the conditional mean model mentioned above, i.e. a conditional variance model:

$\epsilon^2_t = \alpha_0 + \alpha_1 \epsilon^2_{t-1}$.

Say I have estimated it using periods 1 to 10 again. If I again use this information in period 11 to generate a forecast in period 12, it is not strictly out of sample. This is because $\epsilon_{11}$ is based on the non out of sample conditional mean forecast for period 11 (it is not out of sample, because the forecast is partially based on data from period 10 to forecast for period 11, and period 10 is not out of sample).

In other words: my first real "out of sample" ARCH-Model input is the squared error of the abovementioned out of sample conditional mean forecast. Hence, I can not provide an out of sample conditional variance for period 12. Is this correct?

EDIT: By (strictly) out of sample I mean that the data used for forecasting is different than the data used for estimation.

shenflow
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1 Answers1

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Let us start from the more familiar AR model and then move on to ARCH.

When forecasting with AR models, we use actual values of the variable whenever available and their forecasts when not available. We also use estimated values of errors whenever available and conditional expectations (i.e. zero) when not available
E.g. AR(2): $\quad y_t=\varphi_1 y_{t-1}+\varphi_2 y_{t-2}+\varepsilon_t.\quad$ Suppose our available sample is from $1$ to $T$. Then we have actual values $y_1,\dots,y_T$ and estimated errors $\hat\varepsilon_1,\dots,\hat\varepsilon_T$. Beyond that we use forecasts of $y$ that we construct iteratively and conditional expectations of $\varepsilon$ that are zero. E.g.

\begin{aligned} \hat y_{T+1\mid T} &= \hat\varphi_1 y_T+\hat\varphi_2 y_{T-1} + 0 \\ \hat y_{T+2\mid T} &= \hat\varphi_1\hat y_{T+1\mid T}+\hat\varphi_2 y_{T} + 0 \\ \hat y_{T+3\mid T} &= \hat\varphi_1\hat y_{T+2\mid T}+\hat\varphi_2\hat y_{T+1\mid T} + 0 \\ \dots \\ \hat y_{T+n\mid T} &= \hat\varphi_1\hat y_{T+n-1\mid T}+\hat\varphi_2\hat y_{T+n-2\mid T} + 0 \\ \dots \end{aligned}

When forecasting with ARCH models, we use estimated values of squared errors whenever available and estimated conditional expectations of squared errors (i.e. $\hat\sigma_{\dots\mid T}^2$) when not available.
E.g. ARCH(1): $\quad\sigma_t^2=\omega+\alpha_1\varepsilon_{t-1}^2+\alpha_2\varepsilon_{t-2}^2.\quad$ Suppose our available sample is from $1$ to $T$. Then we have estimated values $\hat\varepsilon_1^2,\dots,\hat\varepsilon_T^2$. Beyond that we use estimated conditional expectations $\hat\sigma_{\dots\mid T}^2$ that we obtain iteratively. E.g.

\begin{aligned} \hat \sigma_{T+1\mid T}^2 &= \hat\omega+\hat\alpha_1\hat\varepsilon_T^2+\hat\alpha_2\hat\varepsilon_{T-1}^2 \\ \hat \sigma_{T+2\mid T}^2 &= \hat\omega+\hat\alpha_1\hat \sigma_{T+1\mid T}^2+\hat\alpha_2\hat\varepsilon_T^2 \\ \hat \sigma_{T+3\mid T}^2 &= \hat\omega+\hat\alpha_1\hat \sigma_{T+2\mid T}^2+\hat\alpha_2\hat \sigma_{T+1\mid T}^2 \\ \\ \dots \\ \hat \sigma_{T+n\mid T}^2 &= \hat\omega+\hat\alpha_1\hat \sigma_{T+n-1\mid T}^2+\hat\alpha_2\hat \sigma_{T+n-2\mid T}^2 \\ \dots \end{aligned}

Richard Hardy
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  • Thanks for the reply. I get the mechanism you are explaining. However, I am specifically interested in out of sample (o-o-s) forecasts, i.e. forecasts that are based on data which has not been used to estimate the respective formulas (e.g. AR, or ARCH) coefficients. As I tried to exemplify in my question, such an o-o-s forecast is a bit more tricky in the case of ARCH (in my opinion), as the regressor value itself is the outcome of an estimation (mean model), which in turn affected the variance model estimation. Hence, to be truely out of sample, this regressor needs to be estimated o-o-s. – shenflow Jan 25 '21 at 14:21
  • @shenflow, I am providing exactly that. What I provide are not in-sample fitted values (they should not be called forecasts) but out of sample forecasts. Regarding *this regressor needs to be estimated o-o-s*, we use $\hat\sigma_{T+h\mid T}^2$ instead of $\hat\varepsilon_{T+h}^2$ for time indices $h>0$. Does that help? – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 14:37
  • Okay, but consider the first row of your AR forecast example. You use $y_T$ and $y_{T-1}$ to forecast $y_{T+1}$. Yet, both of these values have been used to estimate $\hat{\varphi_1}$ and $\hat{\varphi_2}$. Thus, this is not an out of sample (strictly speaking) forecast, as the data used to estimate the coefficients and the data used to generate the forecast overlap. – shenflow Jan 25 '21 at 14:46
  • @shenflow, OK, now I see what your concern is. And it is an interesting one! The fact that $y_T$ was used both for estimating the model's coefficients and for constructing the forecast $\hat y_{T+1\mid T}$ reflects an intrinsic feature of autoregressive models. However, I do not think it is problematic. After all, no forecast could ever be viewed as "completely out of sample" as long as it is based on parameter estimates that were calculated from the sample data. (The data points are all hiding in the parameter estimates!) So this applies to absolutely all models that rely on data. – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 15:07
  • @shenflow, in other words, *the data used to estimate the coefficients and the data used to generate the forecast overlap* is always the case, since the parameter estimates involved in constructing any time series forecast (or even cross sectional prediction) are functions of the sample data. – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 15:09
  • In fact, it is not always the case! Just refer to my example. Suppose I estimate an AR1 model based on periods t=1 to t=10. Suppose I also have data for t=11, 12, 13, .... If I now apply my aforementioned model to period t=11, I generate an out of sample forecast for period 12 with estimated coefficients that are not influenced by the data in t=11. Hence, in this case, the estimation data and the data used to generate the forecast do not overlap. In my area of research, such a procedure is often used when generating out of sample forecasts based on rolling windows. – shenflow Jan 25 '21 at 15:16
  • @shenflow, this is indeed a nice example. Note, however, that you have not generated the forecast from $y_{11}$ alone. In constructing each forecast, you used estimated coefficients that are functions of $y_1,\dots,y_{10}$. E.g. if you used least squares for estimating the AR(1) coefficient $\varphi_1$, its estimate is $\hat\varphi_1=(y_{1\dots 9}^\top y_{1\dots 9})^{-1}y_{1\dots 9}^\top y_{2\dots 10}$, for simplicity assuming the model did not have an intercept. Your forecast $\hat y_{11}=\hat\varphi_1 y_{10}=(y_{1\dots 9}^\top y_{1\dots 9})^{-1}y_{1\dots 9}^\top y_{2\dots 10}\cdot y_{10}$ – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 15:30
  • Above, $y_{i\dots j}$ denotes a vector $(y_i,\dots,y_j)^\top$. – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 15:34
  • Yes you are right. Nonetheless, I would like to find the equivalent for volatility forecast models. As I have explained in my question, a forecast which also uses regressor values that have not been used for estimation of the coefficients is only possible for periods t>=13 (not t>=12 as in the mean forecast). This is due to the fact that the respective residual value (i.e. the respective regressor value) is generated by application of a mean model itself. Hence, in order to be fully out of sample, it needs to be derived from an out of sample mean forecast. – shenflow Jan 25 '21 at 15:35
  • @shenflow, OK, so you say that what you want is possible for $t\geq 13$. Is that not good enough? Or is it something else you are trying to achieve? – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 15:54
  • I wanted to ask wether my line of reasoning is correct, as I am not 100% sure. Furthermore, it is not optimal as I would like to generate an out of sample forecast for t>=12. But I guess you can not have it all. – shenflow Jan 25 '21 at 16:01
  • @shenflow, I see. I think I am too tired to dig deeper into this now, but the thing you are pursuing is an interesting one. Do you have any statistical (or other) argument for avoiding $y_{10}$ in the forecast of $y_{11}$ even though $y_{10}$ enters the forecast via $\hat\varphi_1$ regardless? I have never seen it before, but perhaps there is something to learn from such practice. – Richard Hardy Jan 25 '21 at 20:15
  • As far as I am concerned, it is the typical overfitting argument. See e.g. https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/260899/what-is-difference-between-in-sample-and-out-of-sample-forecasts - the first answer provides exactly the definition of out of sample I am following. – shenflow Jan 26 '21 at 09:03
  • @shenflow, keep in mind you are predicting the continuation of a given time series, not another time series from the same data generating process (DGP). Therefore, it would seem unwise to ignore the specifics of the time series at hand (ignore what its value is right before the target period). Regarding the link you provided, I understand the accepted answer as being at odds with your argumentation. Recall: *Was the particular observation used for the model fitting or not ? If it was used for the model fitting, then the forecast of the observation is in-sample. Otherwise it is out-of-sample.* – Richard Hardy Jan 26 '21 at 09:20
  • @shenflow, ...continued: You are forecasting $y_{11}$. You did not use $y_{11}$ for model fitting. Therefore, your forecast is out of sample. (It would be more accurate to say "pseudo out of sample" if your sample covers $y_{11}$, but that does not make a big difference in our discussion.) – Richard Hardy Jan 26 '21 at 09:23
  • Let us [continue this discussion in chat](https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/118952/discussion-between-shenflow-and-richard-hardy). – shenflow Jan 26 '21 at 11:06
  • I moved the discussion to chat and responded to your arguments. I also provided a statistical example of where strict out of sample is used (cross validation). If you are interested, I would be happy to continue to talk there. – shenflow Jan 26 '21 at 11:15