Let's say I have a population $S$, with an estimated size $\hat{n}$ (and standard error $\sigma_{\hat{n}}$). The way that $\hat{n}$ is estimated is through generating random samples from a larger sample space of size $m$ ($n \ll m$), and then determining how many belong to $S$. For our purposes, $n$ can't realistically be determined any other way. These samples form a Bernoulli distribution (since a sample either belongs to $S$ or doesn't), and we calculate $\sigma_\hat{n}$ through normal approximation.
I'd like to sample from $S$ and determine how many samples belong to $T$, on the basis of some arbitrary criteria for $s \in S$. Let the observed proportion of $S$ which are in $T$ be called $\hat{p}$, and let's say we also use a normal approximation. My question is: how does $\sigma_\hat{n}$ "interact" with $\sigma_\hat{p}$? (since we want to calculate $\hat{n}\hat{p}$)
Some notes:
- $\hat{n}$ and $\hat{p}$ are independent. There's no relationship between the two.
- Let's say we're initially sampling from $R$ (of known size $m$) to find $\hat{n}$. Why not instead determine directly how many $r \in T$? The reason is, verifying that some $r$ or $s$ is in $T$ is very complex (PSPACE-hard). The maximum number of samples I can realistically verify to be in $T$ is so small that $m\hat{q}$ (where $\hat{q}$ is the observed proportion of $R$ in $T$) would have confidence intervals much too large to mean anything useful. So instead, I can achieve a very confident estimate of $\hat{n}$, and then sample from $S$ instead.
Any guidance appreciated.
Potential answer: propagation of normally-distributed errors, in our case when multiplying some $\sigma_1$ by $\sigma_2$: notes
Other comments: I initially asked some pretty incomprehensible questions, and really shouldn't have been given the time. Thanks for everyone's precious time, especially BruceET and whuber's.