(Sorry if this is answered elsewhere, but I can't seem to find.)
Something about Bayesian updates that has always confused me - does the "current" posterior n-size matter? And if so, why not?
For instance, according to this (page 3), we have
$$ \tilde\pi_{n+1}(\theta) \propto \pi_{n}(\theta)f(x_{n+1}|\boldsymbol{x_n},\theta) $$
Seems to me, $n$ could be 10 or 10,000, and the "impact" of $x_{n+1}$ on $\pi$ would be the same. Shouldn't we give the "existing posterior" greater weight if there are more "existing" observations?
I'm sure I'm missing something, but can't seem to put my finger on it.