My background the past while has been project management so I haven't really had much work with stats the past decade or so, so please forgive the terminology if it is wrong.
I'm working on a problem involving successive runs. E.g. if I flip a coin 100 times, what is the probability that I will flip heads at least 5 times in a row. I've been poking around trying to figure this out, and what I thought the solution would be is 1 minus the probability of flipping heads once, plus the probability of flipping heads twice, plus the probability of flipping heads three times, plus the probability of flipping heads four times, all in a row:
$$ p=1-\left(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^1 + \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3+ \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4\right) $$
My thinking being that for me to have a run of five or more is the opposite of having a run of 1, 2, 3, or 4. When I do the math on the above, I get a result of 3.13%.
This number feels too low to me. Am I correct in my thinking that the probability of five or more is just the "opposite probability" of a run of 1, 2, 3, or 4?
Thank you.