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How does the interpretation on the coefficient of X in this OLS model:

Y(Profit in €) = b0 + b1 X + b2 X2 (Firm Size in €) + e

change if I rewrite the model as

Y(Profit in €) / X2(Firm Size in €) = b0 + b1 X + e.

In other words, is easy way to understand what using "Firm Size" in the regression model vs. using it to scale Y is doing to the coefficient estimate?

diudas
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  • How are you measuring "Firm Size in EUR"? If it is revenue, then your you have`Profit/Revenue = Profit Margin`, if it is market-cap, then you have `Profit/MarketCap = 1/(Price To Earnings Ratio)`, if it is book-value of shareholder equity, then you have `Profit/Book Equity = ROE` (return on equity). – Daniel R Jul 20 '20 at 14:08

1 Answers1

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In the first case you are controlling for "Firm Size", therefore you would estimate $b_1$ as the effect on "Profits" of a change in "X" given the same "Firm Size".

In the second case you would estimate $b_1$ as, for example, the effect of "X" on the ROE (= Net Income/Equity, as explained in comments).

Ale
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