I've been trying to understand this question I have below and I've been using this as a reference.
The question:
I'm given a random variable
$X(\omega)=\begin{cases} \omega, \quad 0\leq\omega\leq \frac{1}{3}\\ \frac{1}{3}, \quad \frac{1}{3}<\omega\leq 1 \end{cases}$
I'm looking for its CDF and the probability measure is defined as $P([a,b])=b-a$.
The above example (linked post) is very helpful as it illustrates it using a uniform distribution, but I suppose I'm a bit confused on the part of $X(\omega)=\frac{1}{3}$ when $\frac{1}{3}<\omega \leq 1$.
So far my CDF looks like: $P(X\leq x)=x\mathbb{1}_{[0,\frac{1}{3}]}$ but I'm not sure how to the CDF works from $(\frac{1}{3},1]$.