1

I was reading this article in wikipedia related to MAP http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maximum_a_posteriori_estimation. However, I had this confusion when it says

MAP estimation is a limit of Bayes estimators (under the 0-1 loss function), it is not very representative of Bayesian methods in general.

What does it mean MAP estimation is a limit and it has presented a criticism of MAP stating that the mean/median estimates will be better. I didn't get why it is so? Any guidance will be appreciated.

kjetil b halvorsen
  • 63,378
  • 26
  • 142
  • 467
user34790
  • 6,049
  • 6
  • 42
  • 64
  • 3
    This is explained in pp 2 of [this document](http://www2.isye.gatech.edu/~brani/isyebayes/bank/handout4.pdf). –  Dec 26 '12 at 19:39

0 Answers0