I am a newbie to econometrics, so kindly excuse me if I sound too naive.
This is what Fumio Hayashi says on page 34 of "Econometrics":
Recall from probability theory that the normal distribution has several convenient features:
• The distribution depends only on the mean and the variance. Thus, once the mean and the variance are known, you can write down the density function. If the distribution conditional on X is normal, the mean and the variance can depend on X. It follows that, if the distribution conditional on X is normal and if neither the conditional mean nor the conditional variance depends on X, then the marginal (i.e., unconditional) distribution is the same normal distribution. (Italics my own).
I am riddled with the italicised part. In ${{\mathit f}({\mathbf z} {\mid} {\mathbf x)}}$ = ${\frac{\mathit f({\mathbf z},{\mathbf x})}{\mathit f({\mathbf x})}}$, if this conditional distribution is normal (${\mathcal N} ({\mu}, {\Sigma})$), in which case, the only parameters that affect the conditional density are its mean ($\mu$) and variance ($\Sigma$), X is still present in the density function, and hence the distribution does depend on X (Am I right in my understanding of conditional normality, or am I missing something?).
So to rephrase, my concern is how can ${{\mathit f}({\mathbf z} {\mid} {\mathbf x)}}$ be the same as the unconditional distribution ${\mathit f}$($\mathbf {z}$), when the former is dependent on X, even if it were to be the case that ${\mu}$ and ${\Sigma}$ do not depend on X.
Many Thanks for the Help...
ekss.