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So if you have $N \sim \mathrm{Poisson}(\lambda)$ or $N \sim \mathrm{Binomial}(n,p)$ I'm curious about the convolution $$X = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i$$ (where $X_i \sim \mathrm{Normal}(\mu, \sigma)$ and $X=0$ if $N=0$) I guess alternatively this is the compound distribution $$\mathrm{Normal}(N\cdot\mu, \sqrt{N}\cdot\sigma)$$ but that's not much more help.

Another way to think about this, if you know the number of customers entering a bank in a day is determined by a binomial distribution, and the amount they each deposit/withdraw is a normal distribution, what is the distribution for the amount deposited/withdrawn in a day (not just the EV)?

Steven Noble
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  • Are those Normal r.v.'s independent from each other (and also from $N$)? – Stat Nov 27 '12 at 05:27
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    Are you interested in conditional distribution of $X$ given $N$ or unconditional distribution? Try to write your question properly so we can help. – Stat Nov 27 '12 at 05:32
  • I'm interested in the distribution of the sum of n independent normal variables where n is determined by an independent binomial distribution. and I'm also interested in the case when n is determined by an independent Poisson distribution. I don't think a conditional distribution is relevant here. do you mean compound? – Steven Noble Nov 27 '12 at 15:32
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    When you wrote $Normal(N\mu,\sqrt(N).\sigma)$, then it means your $N$ is fixed (i.e. conditional distribution of $X$ given $N$). Otherwise, if this is unconditional distribution, then it is wrong to write $Normal(N\mu,\sqrt(N).\sigma)$, since $N$ is a random variable and not a cosntant. – Stat Nov 27 '12 at 16:37
  • Ok, the syntax you reference is a little loose (though I'm pretty certain I've seen this in actuarial texts like Klugman; I feel the natural interpretation is obvious. in terms of R the random generator would look like "n – Steven Noble Nov 27 '12 at 17:31

2 Answers2

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This is just a law of total probability analysis. Given $N = n > 0$, the conditional distribution of $\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ is a normal distribution with mean $n\mu$ and variance $n\sigma^2$ as the OP correctly says. For $n = 0$, $P\{X \leq x \mid N = 0\}$ has value $0$ if $x < 0$ and value $1$ if $x \geq 0$. Thus, $$\begin{align*} P\{X \leq x\} &= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} P\{X \leq x \mid N = n\}P\{N = n\}\\ &= P\{N = 0\}\mathbf 1_{[0,\infty)}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} P\{X \leq x \mid N = n\}P\{N = n\}\\ &= P\{N = 0\}\mathbf 1_{[0,\infty)}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \Phi\left(\frac{x-n\mu}{\sqrt{n} \sigma}\right)P\{N = n\}\\ &= p_N(0)\mathbf 1_{[0,\infty)}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} p_N(n)\Phi\left(\frac{x-n\mu}{\sqrt{n} \sigma}\right) \end{align*}$$ where $\Phi(\cdot)$ is the cumulative probability distribution function of the standard normal random variable. Note that $X$ is not a continuous random variable but rather a mixed random variable that has both a (degenerate) discrete component as well as a continuous component. Those who believe in impulses (also called Dirac delta) can write the density of $X$ as $$f_X(x) = p_N(0)\delta(x) + \sum_{n=1}^\infty p_N(n)\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi n}} \exp\left(-\frac{(x-n\mu)^2}{2n\sigma^2}\right)$$ which is a mixture density of normal random variables except for the discrete component. Of course, we can choose to regard the discrete component as a (degenerate) normal random variable with variance $0$ (and mean $0$ too) and simply say that the density of $X$ is a mixture of normal densities. However, some statisticians are uncomfortable with this extension of the notion of normal random variables (cf. the extensive discussion following this answer). Note incidentally that $E[X] = \mu E[N]$.

Dilip Sarwate
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Let's do it first for the simple case. Assume $N∼\mathrm{Ber}(p)$ i.e. $P(N=1)=p=1-P(N=0)$ and let $q=1-p$. I am going to find distribution function of $X$, i.e. $F_X(x)=P(X\le x)$.

$F_X(x)=P(X\le x)=P(X\le x, N=0)+P(X\le x,N=1)=P(N=0).P(X\le x| N=0)+P(N=1).P(X\le x| N=1)$.

Now $P(X\le x| N=0)=0$ if $x<0$ and $P(X\le x| N=0)=1$ if $x\geq 0$.

So $F_X(x)=p.P(X\le x| N=1)$ if $x<0$ and $F_X(x)=q+p.P(X\le x| N=1)$ if $x\geq 0$.

Now $X|N=1$ has a normal distribution with mean $\mu$ and sd $\sigma$.

So $P(X\le x| N=1)=P\left(\left(\frac{X_1-\mu}{\sigma}\right)\le \left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)\right)=F_Z\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)$, where $Z$ is a standard normal r.v. with mean zero and variance one.

Therefore $F_X(x)=p.F_Z\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)$ if $x<0$ and $F_X(x)=q+p.F_Z\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)$ if $x\geq 0$. You can simply generalize this method to the binomial case. The only difference is that the $p$ and $q$ will be replace by the corresponding probabilities. For the poisson case, it will be based on the infinite sumations, so there won't be any closed formula like binomial distribution.

Scortchi - Reinstate Monica
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Stat
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