Is the following statement correct?
If $X$ and $Y$ are independent then $\operatorname{Var}(X)\lt \operatorname{Var}(XY)$ and $\operatorname{Var}(Y)\lt \operatorname{Var}(XY).$
Is the following statement correct?
If $X$ and $Y$ are independent then $\operatorname{Var}(X)\lt \operatorname{Var}(XY)$ and $\operatorname{Var}(Y)\lt \operatorname{Var}(XY).$