Suppose z is a continuous random variable and follows a certain distribution
We define φ(x)=p(z>=x), where x is a continuous random variable
It can be proved that the continuous random variable φ(x) follows the uniform distribution: p(φ(x)<=φ(ξ)) =p(x>=ξ) =φ(x)
However, the distribution of φ(x) should depend on the distribution of x but the proof procedure has nothing to do with it. That's what I am confused about.
To elaborate on my point, I am confused about the process of getting different values of φ(x) and then the distribution of it. The value of φ(x) really depends on the value of x, which is not specified in the proof.
Thanks in advance!!