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I am encountering a problem when using inverse probability of treatment weights with linear mixed-effects models for a difference-in-differences analysis.

I have longitudinal data on participants. I weighted each treatment condition to be equal on covariates including the baseline outcome. When I use these weights in a GEE model it accurately finds no difference between conditions at baseline. But when I use a linear mixed-effects model with a random participant intercept the conditions are no longer equal on the outcome at baseline.

(I'm including SAS code to illustrate the problem - I know the code is correct but I don't know why the baseline treatment effect differs between the two methods. In the code below, time is treated as categorical and timec is continuous.)

For example, this GEE model correctly reports no difference in outcome at baseline by treatment:

proc genmod data = d;
    class participant treatment(ref=first) time(ref=first);
    model outcome = treatment|time / cl;
    repeated subject=participant / within=time type = un;
    weight iptw;
run;

While this linear mixed-effects model incorrectly finds a baseline difference in outcome by treatment:

proc mixed data = d empirical;
    class participant treatment(ref=first) time(ref=first);
    model outcome = treatment|time / cl;
    random int timec / subject=participant type = un;
    weight iptw;
run;

Has anybody else encountered this? I have tested this out and it is specifically the random participant intercept that leads to the baseline difference by treatment level. Why would this be the case?

ATB
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    Welcome to the site. People are voting to close this because it looks like it is about SAS code, but it really isn't. If you can edit it to emphasize that you are just using the SAS code as an example of what you are asking about, then it will be clearer that it is on-topic. – Peter Flom Dec 21 '19 at 13:27
  • Some feedback I got: "...The subject-level random effect is 'absorbing' some... of the weight. Since random effects are part of the mean model, they 'suck up' systematic variation between individuals not explained by covariates. In a sense, weighting is just such an 'unexplained' source of inter-individual variation. If... the variance of the subject-specific intercept is larger in the weighted than the unweighted model, this would support my 'absorption' hypothesis." Indeed the variance of the subject-specific intercept is somewhat larger in the weighted than the unweighted model. – ATB Jan 14 '20 at 18:07

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