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For the case of $a_n$ I am confused how my notes say we have 1 for the case n = 0. When calculating this integral for sin(nx) when n=0, we should also get zero as at x=0, sin(x) is 0. I must be missing something obvious here. Could anyone explain please?

Additionally, I am fine with $b_n$ but the final solution. How is it achieved? I am guessing that it is some trig identity?

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Michael R. Chernick
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InvestingScientist
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1 Answers1

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Substitute $n=0$ in the integrals and then evaluate the integral instead of evaluating the integral first and then setting $n$ to 0.

Dilip Sarwate
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