Basically, how do you convert a one unit change in $x_1$ to a $Z\%$ change in $Y$?
1 Answers
You can't (not without more information). The point here is that the logit / logistic is not a linear transformation. Therefore, you cannot get a constant correspondence between a starting percentage and a subsequent percentage even though you use the same log odds ratio to move from the one to the other each time. Here are a few demonstrative numbers for $1$-unit changes in $X$ with a log odds ratio of $1$ (thus, the log odds will simply increase by $1$):
\begin{array}{c}
\text{starting %} &\text{starting lo} & &\text{subsequent lo} &\text{subsequent %} & &\text{% difference} \\
\hline
0.20 &-1.37\quad &\Rightarrow &-0.37\quad &0.40 & &0.20 \\
0.50 &0\quad\ &\Rightarrow &1.0\ \ &0.73 & &0.23 \\
0.90 &2.20 &\Rightarrow &3.20 &0.96 & &0.06
\end{array}
Alternatively, if you simply want to compare two groups (which could be coded $0$ and $1$, for 'control' and 'treatment'), you would need to know the base rate in the control group.

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Thanks for reply! Yes, I am interested in comparing a control and treatment group. Assuming my data set shows a base rate of 20%, how do I convert it into marginal effect? – Yash Mehta Aug 22 '19 at 01:37
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@YashMehta, the % difference is specific to each base rate and log odds ratio combination. You can plug in 0, and then 1, for X and solve the regression equation each time. Then pass the predicted log odds through the link function (see [here](https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/34638/7290)) to get the predicted probabilities, & take their difference. – gung - Reinstate Monica Aug 22 '19 at 03:28