I'm confused about the behaviour to expect from a large sum of independent and identically distributed Poisson variables.
- We know that a sum of $n$ Poisson variables of identical mean $\lambda$ is a Poisson variable of mean $n\lambda$.
- We also know from the Central Limit Theorem that if $n$ is large, this sum should be approximately normal of mean $n\lambda$ and variance $n\lambda$ as well.
Now, what if we set $n\lambda = 1$ for instance?
Does it mean that the $\lambda$ mean parameter cannot anymore be considered as finite when $n$ is large, so we cannot apply the CLT anymore? Because obviously, a $\mathcal{P}oisson(1)$ is different from a $\mathcal{N}(1,1)$...
Context: the concrete situation is from a model of evolution of DNA sequences:
we take a sequence of $n$ sites, and at each site, the number of mutations in a given time follows a Poisson distribution, but we know that over the whole sequence (e.g 200-1000 sites), the mean will be like 5 mutations in 1 million years. I feel like I can't apply the CLT, although in a specific paper, the normality assumption is used to deduce confidence intervals.