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$X\sim N(52,6)$, $Y\sim (40,8)$. What's the standard deviation of $Z=X+Y$?

I'm considering to transform the linear relationship to matrix form $$Z=\begin{pmatrix} 1& 1\\ \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} X\\ Y \end{pmatrix}$$

and apply $$\Sigma_{z}=A \Sigma^{-1} A'$$

However, I don't know the next step. How to calculate $\Sigma$?

Thank you!

Jill Clover
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    A hint: In case of independent random variables it is known that characteristic function of the sum $Z=X+Y$ is equal to the product of characteristic functions of separate variables: $$\phi_{Z=X+Y} (t) = \phi_{X}(t)*\phi_{Y}(t)$$. Can you infere the family of distributions from resulting characteristic function? – Tomas Oct 24 '12 at 09:48
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    @Thomas I don't think that this simple case requires convolution – jem77bfp Oct 24 '12 at 10:01
  • Hint (and justification of the remark by @jem77bfp): if $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables with *any* distributions for which $X$ has a standard deviation of $6$ and $Y$ has a standard deviation of $8$, then you can deduce the SD of $X+Y$ from this information alone. – whuber Oct 24 '12 at 14:05

3 Answers3

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It's interesting that you are trying to use the matrix form when this is more of a elementary problem.

Remember $$ \mbox{Var}(X + Y) = \mbox{Var}(X) + \mbox{Var}(Y) + 2 \mbox{Cov}(X,Y). $$

You don't say anything about the relation between $X$ and $Y$, so either you assume a covariance of zero or the problem is not solvable due to missing informations.

The matrix form of this is $$ \mbox{Cov}(AX) = A \cdot \mbox{Cov}(X)\cdot A'. $$

This covariance matrix seems to be your $\Sigma$. I don't know why you inverted it in your formula. Perhaps I misunderstand your equation? You know that $\Sigma_{1,1} = 6$ and $\Sigma_{2,2} = 8$. These are just the variances of $X$ and $Y$ respectively. Again, since you do not have a covariance and since you cannot calculate it from the information given, the question is either unsolvable or you have have to assume independence, which implies $\Sigma_{1,2}=\Sigma_{2,1}=0$. This will then give the same result as the equation for $\mbox{Var}(X+Y)$. Remember to take the root to get the standard deviations.

whuber
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Erik
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As distribution of $\begin{pmatrix} X\\ Y \end{pmatrix}$ is not specified, I would probably assume that $\mbox{cov}(X,Y)=0$ then $$\Sigma =\begin{pmatrix} 6 & 0\\ 0 & 8 \end{pmatrix}.$$ Where diagonal elements of $\Sigma$ are variances of $X$ and $Y$. If the $\mbox{cov}(X,Y)$ is available you should insert that number instead of $0$'s.

jem77bfp
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If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables that are normally distributed, then their sum is also normally distributed. i.e., if

$X\sim N(\mu_X, \sigma_X^2)$

$Y \sim N(\mu_Y, \sigma_Y^2)$

$Z=X+Y$

and $X$ and $Y$ are independent, then

$Z \sim N(\mu_X + \mu_Y, \sigma_X^2 + \sigma_Y^2).$

You can prove it using both characteric functions and convolutions. I will refer you to read this page for the proofs.

In the event that the variables $X$ and $Y$ are jointly normally distributed correlated random variables, then $Z=X + Y$ is still normally distributed and the mean is the sum of the means. However, the variances are not additive due to the correlation. Indeed,

$\sigma_{X+Y} = \sqrt{\sigma_X^2+\sigma_Y^2+2\rho\sigma_X \sigma_Y}$

This one is also shown in the previous link.

You can also find this using the fact that $Q^{'}=[X \; Y]$ is bivariate normal with variables $X$ and $Y$ and distributed as $N_{2}(\mu,\Sigma).$ Then $Z=AQ$ with $A=[1\;1]$ is distributed as $N_{q}(A\mu,A \Sigma A^{'})$, where $q$ is the number of linear combinations (or the number of rows in $A$). Each row in $A$ corresponds to a linear combination of the variables $X$ and $Y$. Here we have only 1 row. So, $q=1$. Put $\sigma_X^2$, $\sigma_Y^2$ and $\sigma_{XY}$ in $\Sigma_{(2\times2)}$ and find the result for the correlated case.

Dilip Sarwate
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Blain Waan
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    Your first statement is not quite correct. If $X$ and $Y$ are independent normal random variables, then they necessarily **are** jointly normal random variables and the formula used in the second part of your answer applies to them too, and gives the same results as you stated separately because $\rho = 0$. A proof of the result for jointly normal random variables can be found [here](http://stats.stackexchange.com/a/19953/6633) on-site without needing to go to Wikipedia. – Dilip Sarwate Oct 24 '12 at 14:29
  • Probably the choice of words was bad! I wanted to mean that their joint density need not be considered to find the distribution of $Z$. Thank you for mentioning. – Blain Waan Oct 24 '12 at 16:33
  • Maybe you could take the time to edit your answer. Note that "...their joint density need not be considered to find the **distribution** of $Z$." is also not a correct statement. What _is_ correct are the comments by jem77bfp and whuber on the main question and the answer by Erik that _normality_ or _joint normality_ or the lack thereof are irrelevant to the computation of the _variance_ (or standard deviation) of $Z = X+Y$ as long as independence is assumed or as long as $\text{cov}(X,Y)$ is known. – Dilip Sarwate Oct 24 '12 at 19:42