Isn't this test for the determination of auto-correlation of residuals only necessary when time is some sort of a factor in the observed variables?
As it is I had a data-set that had one dependent variable (sales) and three independent variables, (unemployment rate, population size and advertizing expense). I find it difficult to imagine how the residuals in this situation can be serially-related without a sequence of observations being specified.
My group-mate was unable to explain this to me as I was very skeptical that the Durbin Watson test belonged in our report.
Please help me understand