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Consider a sequence of random numbers drawn IID from some distribution $g(x)$. How would I determine the distribution of the value of the first sample from that sequence which is not greater than all previous samples? What about the special case where $g(x)$ is uniform over $[0, 1]$?

Example: Some example IID sequences drawn from $U(0,1)$ are

0.35, 0.29, 0.19, 0.64, ...
      ^^^^
0.33, 0.35, 0.22, 0.62, ...
            ^^^^
0.21, 0.01, 0.98, 0.11, ...
      ^^^^
0.59, 0.77, 0.93, 0.17, ...
                  ^^^^

The first non-monotonic samples are 0.29, 0.22, 0.01, 0.17. I'm interested in the distribution function for these values, either in the general or the $U(0,1)$ case.

ChrisB
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  • Is this a continuous variable in your more general case? (the continuous case is really straightforward; the answer is the same for all continuous distributions) Or do you seek to cover discrete variables? What about discrete/continuous mixtures? – Glen_b Apr 17 '19 at 00:00
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    Actually, it looks like the continuous case is completely covered by the answer [here](https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/350923/brain-teaser-what-is-the-expected-length-of-an-iid-sequence-that-is-monotonical) (*mutatis mutandis* in relation to the shift-by-one in the definition of the variable); I will leave this open for the moment (pending clarification on the above question). – Glen_b Apr 17 '19 at 00:29
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    Possible duplicate of [Brain-teaser: What is the expected length of an iid sequence that is monotonically increasing when drawn from a uniform \[0,1\] distribution?](https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/350923/brain-teaser-what-is-the-expected-length-of-an-iid-sequence-that-is-monotonical) – Ben Apr 17 '19 at 01:37
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    Note that I'm not asking about the *length* of the sequence, but rather the value of the first non-monotonic sample. I'm interested in the continuous case only. – ChrisB Apr 17 '19 at 02:21
  • Yep, got it now; you want he unconditional distribution of $X_L$ (where $L$ is defined as the position of the first "dip") – Glen_b Apr 17 '19 at 02:54
  • Some pseudo code: Do[If[$y_{i-1}>y_i,$Print("i; ",i);exit loop],($i,2,n$)] – Carl Apr 18 '19 at 04:30
  • Hint: the solution for the Uniform$(0,1)$ case easily produces the solution for the continuous case. You might find it easier to begin by finding the distribution of the value that immediately precedes the first dip and then consider the distribution of next value conditional on it not being greater than that. – whuber Apr 23 '19 at 04:11

2 Answers2

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Let $X_1,X_2,X_3,... \sim \text{IID } G$ be your exchangeable sequence of random variables and define $N \equiv \max \{ n \in \mathbb{N} | X_1 < X_2 < \cdots < X_n \}$, which is the length of the largest increasing portion at the start of the sequence. You are looking for the distribution of the random variable $X_{N+1}$, which is the first value that is not greater than all the previous values. This question is tractable if the distribution $G$ is continuous, but it gets much more complicated if the distribution has any discrete part, since that requires dealing with ties. For simplicity, I am going to show you the answer that holds when you have a continuous distribution.


Some preliminary work: We will use $G$ to denote the (continuous) distribution function and $g$ to denote the corresponding density function. In this related question it was established that the mass function for $n$ is:

$$p_N(n) = \mathbb{P}(N=n) = \frac{n}{(n+1)!} \quad \quad \quad \quad \text{for all } n \in \mathbb{N}.$$

Since $N=n$ requires that $X_1< \cdots <X_n \geqslant X_{n+1}$ (and the maximum is invariant to the order) we also have:

$$\mathbb{P}(X_n \leqslant r | N=n) = \mathbb{P}(X_i \leqslant r)^{n+1} = G(r)^{n+1},$$

which gives the corresponding density:

$$p(X_n = r|N=n) = (n+1) g(r) G(r)^n.$$


Finding the target density: Using the above results we have:

$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} p(X_{N+1} = x|N=n) &= \int p(X_{n+1} = x | X_n = r, N=n) \ dP(X_{n} \leqslant r | N=n) \\[6pt] &= \int \limits_x^\infty p(X_{n+1} = x | X_n = r, N=n) \cdot p(X_{n} = r | N=n) \ dr \\[6pt] &= \int \limits_x^\infty p(X_{n+1} = x | X_{n+1} \leqslant r) \cdot p(X_{n} = r | N=n) \ dr \\[6pt] &= \int \limits_x^\infty \frac{g(x)}{G(r)} \cdot (n+1) g(r) G(r)^{n} \ dr \\[6pt] &= g(x) \int \limits_x^\infty (n+1) g(r) G(r)^{n-1} \ dr \\[6pt] &= g(x) \Bigg[ \frac{n+1}{n} \cdot G(r)^{n} \Bigg]_{r=x}^{r \rightarrow \infty} \\[12pt] &= \frac{n+1}{n} \cdot g(x) (1 - G(x)^n). \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$

Hence, we have:

$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} p(X_{N+1} = x) &= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \ p(X_{n+1} = x | N=n) \cdot \mathbb{P}(N=n) \\[6pt] &= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \ \frac{n+1}{n} \cdot g(x) (1 - G(x)^n) \cdot \frac{n}{(n+1)!} \\[6pt] &= g(x) \sum_{n=1}^\infty \ \frac{1 - G(x)^n}{n!} \\[6pt] &= g(x) \sum_{n=0}^\infty \ \frac{1 - G(x)^n}{n!} \\[6pt] &= g(x) ( e - e^{G(x)} ). \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$

The corresponding distribution function is:

$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \mathbb{P}(X_{N+1} \leqslant x) &= \int \limits_{-\infty}^x g(r) ( e - e^{G(r)} ) \\[6pt] &= \Bigg[ G(r) \cdot e - e^{G(r)} \Bigg]_{r \rightarrow - \infty}^{r=x} \\[6pt] &= \Bigg[ G(x) \cdot e - e^{G(x)} - (-1) \Bigg] \\[6pt] &= 1 + G(x) \cdot e - e^{G(x)}. \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$


Special case - uniform distribution: In the case where we use the standard uniform distribution we have $g(x) = 1$ and $G(x) = x$ for all $0 \leqslant x \leqslant 1$ so we have:

$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} p(X_{N+1} = x) &= e - e^{x}. \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$

Ben
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  • Thank you! This all looks correct *except* the equation for (=|=) -- I believe this is (n+1)g(r)G(r)^n (because X_n is the maximum of n+1 samples in this context, not n samples). This simplifies the overall result to a sum of 1/n! g(x) (1 - G(x)^n). I confirmed this result with Monte Carlo simulation for the uniform case. – ChrisB Apr 17 '19 at 18:17
  • and furthermore, for the uniform case, the result simplifies to e - e^x – ChrisB Apr 17 '19 at 18:23
  • Well spotted - I have edited the answer to correct this, and that does indeed simplify the mathematics considerably. – Ben Apr 17 '19 at 22:43
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@Ben provides most of the solution, here's a summary that fixes a minor error:

The sequence we are interested in consists of N monotonic elements ($X_1 < X_2 < ... < X_N$) followed by a non-monotonic element at position N+1. We are interested in $p(X_{N+1}=x)$

The PDF for the length of the monotonic sequence at the start of the chain (excluding the first non-monotonic sample) is $p(N=n) = \frac{n}{(n+1)!}$

The PDF for the maximum value among the first N+1 elements (which, in this context, is also the value of the element at position N) is $p(X_n=r | N=n) = (n+1)g(r)G(r)^n$, where G is the cumulative distribution function corresponding to g.

The distribution for $X_{N+1}$ is $p(X_{N+1} = x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\int_x^{\infty}{p(X_{N+1}=x|X_N=r, N=n)p(X_n=r|N=n)p(N=n)dr}$

Using the fact that $X_{N+1} < X_{N}$, the first term is equivalent to

$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\int_x^{\infty}{p(X_{N+1}=x|X_{N+1} < r, N=n)p(X_n=r|N=n)p(N=n)dr}$

Which we can flip around using Bayes' rule:

$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\int_x^{\infty}{\frac{p(X_{N+1}<r|X_{N+1}=x, N=n)p(X_{N+1}=x|N=n)}{p(X_{N+1} < r | N=n)}p(X_n=r|N=n)p(N=n)dr}$

Finally, plugging in $g$ and $G$ based on the above identities:

$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\int_x^{\infty} \frac{g(x)}{G(r)}(n+1)g(r)G(r)^n\frac{n}{(n+1)!} dr$

$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}g(x)\frac{1}{n!}\int_x^{\infty}ng(r)G(r)^{n-1} dr$

$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{g(x)}{n!}[1 - G(x)^n]$

For the case where $X \sim U(0,1)$, $g(x)=1$, $G(x)=x$, and

$p(X_{N+1})=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1-x^n}{n!} = e-e^x$

Which we can confirm against Monte Carlo simulation:

def sample(g = np.random.uniform):    
    x = top = g()
    while x >= top:
        top = x
        x = g()
    return x

def f(x):
    return np.e - np.exp(x)

plt.hist([sample() for _ in range(100000)], bins=100, density=True)
x = np.linspace(0, 1, 20)
y = np.array([f(xx) for xx in x])
plt.plot(x, y)

enter image description here

ChrisB
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