We have a survival dataset in which the control group has zero events, while the other group does have some few events. Since hazard ratio calculation would yield division-by-zero errors, it appears to be common to correct for this issue by adding a fixed number (usually 0.5) to all cells. However, my research on this correction has turned up almost exclusively meta-analysis studies [1-3].
It is not immediately clear to me if this correction can also be legitimately applied to our single study. It seems counterintuitive to report a hazard ratio at all, given that the control group ultimately has zero hazard at all times of our dataset, meaning that the other group would have an "infinitely higher" risk (which, of course, does not reflect reality either).
Similar problems have been discussed before [4-7] but I could not find published/citeable evidence that using a fixed correction is legitimate outside of meta-analysis, or more specifically, in our single cohort.
References
[1] https://handbook-5-1.cochrane.org/chapter_16/16_9_2_studies_with_zero_cell_counts.htm
[2] https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1002/sim.2528
[3] https://ebmh.bmj.com/content/21/2/72.long
[4] Cox regression when reference group had zero events
[5] Dealing with no events in one treatment group - survival analysis
[EDIT] Edited to correct false display of references. [/EDIT]