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Of course, correlation does not equal causation. But I am having trouble understanding if there is no correlation between two variables, would this indicate a lack of casual relationship between them as well?

If possible, I would really like an example to help wrap my head around this.

cosmicluna
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    Your question has already been answered here https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/357255/does-statistical-independence-mean-lack-of-causation/357275#357275 and here https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/26300/does-causation-imply-correlation/301823#301823 – Carlos Cinelli Mar 17 '19 at 01:51
  • @Peter If $X\sim\text{Unif}(-1,1)$ and $Y=X^2$; then $\text{corr}(X,Y)=0$. Why couldn't that be causal? – Glen_b Mar 17 '19 at 05:28
  • @CarlosCinelli zero correlation is not the same as independence (which the first of your suggested duplicates asks about). However, the second one is relevant (via contraposition; if $A\implies B$ then $\lnot B \implies \lnot A$). – Glen_b Mar 17 '19 at 05:31
  • @Glen_b Oof. Rookie blunder! Thx. – Peter Leopold Mar 17 '19 at 13:02

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