So I have a small sample size (N=24) but found an extremely large effect size for an effect. A common phrase appearing is 'effect size is independent of sample size,' which I had taken to suggest that although my sample size was small, my large effect size suggests a strong effect is present.
However, I have found other research suggesting a small sample size can inflate effect size.
Therefore my question is whether it is appropriate to conclude that my strong effect size alongside significant effect with the small sample size, still suggests there is a strong effect present?
Thanks!