I have two questions, each of which I think might be related to each other but I'm not sure. Both concern the definition of variance as:
$var(x) = s_x^2 = \dfrac{1}{n-1} \sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x})^2$
(1) How do we prove that $\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x}) = 0$? I can see that this is true using a few examples but I'm unsure how to do a general proof.
(2) In this definition, what is the conceptual motivation for having the squared difference squared, as opposed to cubed or some other exponent?