I'm having a little trouble interpreting regression coefficients from a Poisson model.
Wooldridge, for example, says: "The Poisson coefficient implies that $\Delta_{pcnv}=.10$ reduces the expected number of arrests by about 4% [.402(.10) = .0402, and we multiply this by 100 to get the percentage effect]"
But later on, he says "The Poisson coefficient on black implies that, other factors being equal, the expected number of arrests for a black man is estimated to be about $100\cdot[\exp(.661)-1]=93.7\%$ higher than for a white man with the same values for the other explanatory variables."
I'm confused as to when I should just multiply the coefficient by $\Delta_{x_i}$ or use $100\cdot[\exp(x_i)-1]$.
When is it just a change in % and when am I "counting" the number of incidences?
Is it because one is a dummy variable and the other is not?
How would I interpret the following output?
Here kids
is the number of kids, educ
is the number of education years, age
is the age, black
is a dummy variable and all the rest are year dummies.
. poisson kids educ age agesq black y76 y78 y80 y82 y84
Iteration 0: log likelihood = -2078.5379
Iteration 1: log likelihood = -2078.5379
Poisson regression Number of obs = 1,129
LR chi2(9) = 130.18
Prob > chi2 = 0.0000
Log likelihood = -2078.5379 Pseudo R2 = 0.0304
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
kids | Coef. Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
educ | -.0424093 .0069363 -6.11 0.000 -.0560043 -.0288143
age | .1989907 .0545383 3.65 0.000 .0920977 .3058837
agesq | -.0021678 .0006149 -3.53 0.000 -.003373 -.0009626
black | .3193816 .0588883 5.42 0.000 .2039627 .4348005
y76 | -.0831634 .0578159 -1.44 0.150 -.1964805 .0301537
y78 | -.0641177 .0591386 -1.08 0.278 -.1800273 .0517918
y80 | -.0691123 .0591021 -1.17 0.242 -.1849502 .0467257
y82 | -.251696 .057926 -4.35 0.000 -.3652289 -.1381631
y84 | -.262424 .0599642 -4.38 0.000 -.3799516 -.1448964
_cons | -2.870521 1.202454 -2.39 0.017 -5.227287 -.5137548
Edit: I checked the link, but I still have the doubts above. When do I just multiply the change by the coefficient and when do I calculate using exponents? When am I calculating a change and when am I "counting" (whether it increases or decreases and by how many "units") the number of kids given a value of a variable?
Edit 2: I apologize. It's Wooldidge's Introductory Econometrics 5th Ed.: A Modern Approach (page 608).
Edit 3: I think my question sort of narrows down to: which of the following would be a correct interpretation? (or are both correct?)
Having 10 years of education decreases the number of kids by $e^{(-0.042*10)}=0.657$ kids (units)
An increase in one year of education decreases the number of kids by $\left(e^{(-0.042*1)}-1\right )\cdot 100=-4.11\%$ (percent).