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I am trying to solve some of my past papers exam and really don't know where I did wrong here :

enter image description here

Naturally, I know that the integral from minus infinity to infinity for any pdf equals $1$. I solved this :

$$\int_1^a\frac{\ln(0.5)}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x=1$$

But when I did, I came with a value of a smaller than $1$ which is not possible... ($a=e^{-1/\ln(2)}=0.27$) I really don't get where I did wrong. Obviously when I tried to find the CDF by integration, I found something weird too...

StubbornAtom
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1 Answers1

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You should have started with drawing this alleged PDF:

enter image description here

It's always negative in $x\in[1,\infty)$. Just a couple of weeks ago someone was asking here whether the probability is the study of nonnegative functions.

Someone was having hangover when coming up with the problem :)

Aksakal
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