If I have to find a link between Gender equality and Divorce rates, can I then use a correlation between between Gender Inequality Index and Crude divorce rate obtained from different countries? If yes, should there be any assumptions that need to be there before testing the correlation?
Asked
Active
Viewed 161 times
0

kjetil b halvorsen
- 63,378
- 26
- 142
- 467

Raahi
- 11
-
1In the text of bod you are saying Gender equality and. Gender Inequality Index ? and under what assumptions you are contemplating the correlation ? and which correlation and why? – Mar 27 '18 at 09:43
-
You meet the problem of *ecological inference*. See https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/71376/can-ecological-inference-problems-be-solved-by-fixed-effects, https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/23779/most-interesting-statistical-paradoxes/23822#23822 and https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/58073/name-of-the-paradox-reported-by-gelman/193744#193744 – kjetil b halvorsen Jan 04 '19 at 14:05